Q.= Friend's Question.                                                                            Page 3
A.= Editor's Answer.

Q.--- If this is true, why would God allow Gentiles to partake of this salvation and join this church with His people?
A.--- Paul writing to the Romans answers your question. He says at Romans 11:11, ( correctly translated from the Greek language) “I say then have they ( Israel ) stumbled (ptaio) that they ( Israel ) should ( pipto) fall, GOD FORBID.  NO! But rather through their ( paraptoma ) failure, salvation is come unto the Gentiles for to provoke them ( Israel ) to jealousy.
     Paul goes on to say at verse 14 “If by any means I may provoke to emulation ( jealousy) them ( Israel ) which are my flesh and might save some of them.” The apostle answers why God has allowed the Gentiles to partake of Israel's salvation.
     If there is still some skepticism about whether Israel fell and was cast away, note Romans 1:1, “ I say then hath God cast away  his people? GOD FORBID (NO) For I am also an Israelite of the seed of Abraham of the tribe of Benjamin Romans 1:2 God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew.
     The apostle answers the question, Did Israel fall at Acts chapters 2,10,13? When he said “Hath God cast away His people (God forbid ) EMPHATIC NO.  He goes on to say that he is an Israelite of the seed of Abraham of the tribe of Benjamin using himself as prove that God hath not cast away his people.

Q.--- How do you explain that the scriptures say at Acts 18:6, 22:16 that Paul was to go to the Gentiles?
A.--- The scriptures do say that Paul went to the Gentiles but the scriptures are very plain that Paul did not leave the Jews. The facts show that right after he makes this statement, he goes directly to the Jewish chief ruler of the synagogue and he believed on the Lord. Acts 18:7-8 All the way through the Acts period, Paul continues to preach to the Jew first. Acts 8:19-24.   

Q.--- If what you say is true, that Paul didn’t leave the Jew ,then how can you explain that Paul had one course and that was the gospel of the grace of God?
A.--- You must be referring to Acts 20:24-27 where the writer says of Paul 24 “That I might finish my course with joy and the ministry which I have received of the Lord Jesus Christ to testify the gospel of the grace of God” 25- “And now behold I know that ye all among whom I have gone preaching the kingdom of God shall see my face no more.”
     It is interesting here that Paul does not say that he has one course but he says my course . He goes on to say that within his course is the gospel of the grace of God and the kingdom of God. He preached the same message as the twelve apostles.
At verse 27 the writer says he has not shunned to declare unto you all the counsel of God. There can be no other message from God that Paul has not preached because the word all is all inclusive and will not allow for Paul to have an oral message during Acts and a written message ( entirely different in Paul’s first seven epistles).

Q.--- I realize that Paul preached to the Jew but Paul was only the apostle to the Gentiles.
A.--- If you will turn with me to Acts 14:14, I think I can show that Paul is not exclusively sent to the Gentiles.
     The writer says “Which when the apostles, Barnabas and Paul heard of they rent their clothes and ran in among the people crying out.” By this verse we see that Barnabas was also an apostle and whether Paul was preaching to the Jews or Gentiles he was with him.
     Acts 14:21 says “And when they ( Paul and Barnabas ) had preached the gospel to that city and had taught many they returned again to Lysta and to Iconium and Antioch. Note that Barnabas preached the same message as Paul.
     Now, as far as Paul being an apostle to Gentiles only and not to the Jew, the evidence shows otherwise. He also is an apostle to the Jew just like the twelve apostles.
     It can be easily located in the Acts period that Paul went to the Jew at least seventeen or more times, preaching the word of God. As a matter of fact, he preached the word of God to the Jew first. Romans 1:16.
     It is recorded at Acts 9:15 that the Lord chose Paul to be a chosen vessel unto me to hear my name before the Gentiles, kings and the children of Israel. Even after this statement, certain teachers continue to teach that Paul was not a chosen vessel to the Jew even though he went immediately into the synagogue and reached Christ to the Jew and he continues this all the way through the Acts period.
     Because the Lord Jesus Christ supposably did not say at Acts 9, Paul you are an apostle to the Jew, all evidence of his apostle-ship is denied for pure doctrinal reasons.
     The apostle settles this and proves that the Lord Jesus  DID SAY  at Acts 9 that Paul had received the apostle-ship to both Jew and Gentile.
The apostle referring back to Acts 9 and of his conversion saying at Acts 26:16 “But rise and stand upon thy feet for I have appeared unto thee for the purpose to make thee a minister and a witness both of  these things which thou hast seen and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee.” 17- “Delivering thee from the people  and the Gentiles unto whom now I SEND  ( apostello ) thee.” Paul is made an apostle to Jew and Gentile.
     The apostle received his ministry ( referred to as MY COURSE )   from the Lord Jesus when he was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and the Gentiles. Acts 9
     Acts 26:18 says to open their eyes (Jew and Gentile ) and to turn them from darkness to light and from the power of Satan unto God that they ( lost sheep, Gentiles ) may receive forgiveness of sins and inheritance among them ( repentant Israel ) which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
     The lost sheep of the house of Israel and the Gentiles were to become one with the sanctified or repentant Israel.
     During the Acts period, the Gentiles are a very minor player whereby few Gentiles are identified by name during this period.

Q..--- The apostle Paul, unlike the twelve was not covered  under the law of Moses whereby he only preached grace during the Acts period.
A.--- I have heard this before but the scriptures say at Matthew 5:18 that the law was supposed to be in force “till all be fulfilled.”
     This scripture does not say until he died on the cross of Calvary but “ till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law.” If the law is in force “ until heaven and earth pass away”, the law was in force during the Acts period.
     We do not need man’s word upon the law because we have the holy scriptures witness upon this.
     The apostle Paul is accused of teaching the Jews to forsake Moses and that they ought not to circumcise their children or walk after the customs. Acts 21:21.
He is also accused at Acts 21:28 that he teacheth all men, everywhere against the people and the law.
     To prove this charge wrong James told Paul to go with “ four men which have a vow on them” Acts 21:23-24. “Then take and purify thyself with them and be at charges with them that they may shave their heads and all may know that these things whereof they were informed concerning thee are nothing but that thou thyself also walked orderly and keepest the law.”
     When it is said that there is another church here that is not under the law, we are making the apostle Paul a sayer of falsehood. There is one church in Acts and a few Gentiles were added to it.

Q.--- If the apostle Paul’s ministry was pertaining to the law, where is the scripture to prove this?
A.--- Paul’s Acts ministry was pertaining to the law because at Acts 26:22 Paul said “Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day witnessing both to small and great saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.”
     Although Paul’s words are very plain, some are saying that Paul said something different in the Acts  than what he wrote in his first six epistles. Their motive is very apparent for they must cast doubt upon Paul’s statement at Acts 26:22 so they can present the dispensation of grace in Paul’s first six epistles. If these detractors are correct, then Paul is presented as one that has not told the whole truth.
     Men can say anything but we must let God give us the answers.
At Acts 20:26-27, Paul says “Wherefore I take you to record this day, that I am pure from the blood of all men. For I have not shunned to declare unto you all the counsel of God.” Paul makes the statement that he has declared ALL the revealed purpose of God up to the present time.
     Paul could not have preached the truth concerning the dispensation of grace because it had not been revealed to him and his last seven epistles had not been written.
     At the time that Paul was before Agrippa, Paul had already written his first six epistles: Galatians, 1 and 2 Thessalonians, 1 and 2 Corinthians and Romans. The force of his words cannot be denied that he has said none other things than which Moses and the prophets did say should come.
     You can search in vain within his first six epistles for the one new man of Colossian 3:11, the body of Christ.
     The apostle answers all detractors when he tells Festus, “but speak forth the words of  truth and soberness.” Paul answers all when he says “I speak the truth. 
Is it possible that Paul was holding something back when he said “I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great saying none (nothing ) other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.”   
     After Paul says that he speaks the truth, he brings King Agrippa into this picture, Acts 26:26 “For the king knoweth of these things before whom also I speak freely for I am persuaded that none of these things are hidden (has escaped his notice ) from him, for this thing was not done in a corner.”
     Did Festus and King Agrippa give any indication that Paul was not telling all about his ministry in his defense before them? ABSOLUTELY NOT!  Paul says that Agrippa knew about his ministry and what he preached and that nothing was hidden (escaped his notice ) from him.
     Agrippa did not say that Paul said something different here at Acts 26 than what he wrote in his first six epistles.
If Paul in his first six epistles wrote of a Gentile church completely independent of Israel, it would be unbelievable to think that Festus and Agrippa would not have brought this charge up against the apostle Paul.
     The characters in scripture namely Festus, Bernice and King Agrippa found that Paul was telling the truth and holding nothing back when he said “saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.” When they said together ,Acts 26:31 “This man doeth nothing worthy of death or of bonds.”
     It is further demonstrated that what a man says he writes and it is also true that the reverse of this is that what he writes he also says. Luke 1:63 :And he asked for a writing table and wrote saying “ his name is John.”
     Paul demonstrates at 2 Thessalonians 2:15 that he did not teach anything different in his saying ministry than what he wrote in his written  ministry. “Therefore brethren stand fast and hold the traditions which ye have been taught whether by word or our epistle.” Paul’s detractors are found to be in error , not only by the characters in scripture but the scripture witness is that everything he wrote comes within the limits of this outline at Acts 26:22.
     The apostle Paul expanded upon what “Moses and the prophets did say should come” but not one word outside the outline of Acts 26:22.
     The book of Acts or Paul’s first six epistles say nothing about a Gentile church independent of Israel or a dispensation of grace during this Acts period. In fact, this dispensation of grace was given to the Apostle Paul after Acts 28:28, Ephesians 3:1-9.
     Further more, the church today is governed by pure grace, meaning  that the way God acts today is, if He cannot act in grace He will not act. He cannot act in judgement because He dispenses only in grace for today.
     During the Acts period and Paul’s first six epistles, God was dispensing grace and judgement and not governing with pure grace. Although God was dispensing grace, He also was acting in judgement when Ananias and Sapphira lied to the holy ghost and lost their lives in judgement.    It could not be an act of grace where Herod was killed because the people thought he spoke with the voice of God. Acts 12:22-23,13:11.    At Acts 13:11, Paul causes Elymas to become blind because he withstood and was seeking to turn one away from faith.
     Even at the partaking of the Lord’s Passover supper, God is acting in judgement, for the scriptures record at 1 Corinthians 11:29-30 “For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord’s body.” “For this cause many are weak and sickly among you and many sleep” ( or are dead ). This is not God’s pure grace but God’s death judgement. This cannot be the church that God is dispensing pure grace and no judgement.             [Please continue with 'Answers' - click on page4]